So I've just started reading "Sailing to Sarantium", and already I'm mentally replacing the names he uses for the historical counter-part (ie, Rome for Rhodias).
Without wanting any spoilers, is there any reason why he's simply changing the names and calling it "fantasy", when he could have kept the names and called it "historical fiction"?
I guess there may be clues later on, it's just that I've read quick a lot of Byzantine History, and so far my mind keeps stopping to correct for proper historical names, which is stutturing the pace.
This is especially the case as Stephen Lawhead's "Byzantium" is such an excellent read (and I presume recommended for those who read the Sarantine books).
Without wanting any spoilers, is there any reason why he's simply changing the names and calling it "fantasy", when he could have kept the names and called it "historical fiction"?
I guess there may be clues later on, it's just that I've read quick a lot of Byzantine History, and so far my mind keeps stopping to correct for proper historical names, which is stutturing the pace.
This is especially the case as Stephen Lawhead's "Byzantium" is such an excellent read (and I presume recommended for those who read the Sarantine books).