Is it just me who thinks it's weird that Tolkien never much attempted to account for the origins of hobbits, even though he was working on what would become The Silmarillion for forty years after he'd invented the creatures?
If we take The Silmarillion as fact (within that universe), then hobbits have to be descended from men - each of the other intelligent species are accounted for either with the second or third themes in the Ainur's music (Elves and Men), as creations by a god (Dwarves and Ents), or corruptions by Melkor (Orcs and Trolls, and maybe dragons though it's never speculated AFAIK what they were corruptions of). But given that The Silmarillion etc are meant to be translations made by hobbits from the Elvish, it seems strange that the question is never raised within the text. (Is this also the case with The History of Middle Earth supplemental material?)
Tolkien was notoriously pedantic, and loved inventing explanations for apparent anomalies, as his letters showed. But apart from hobbits' origins probably lying in the Vale of Anduin, he said almost nothing about this point (or not that I know of).
This seems out of character. Could it be that he just couldn't account for them without mucking up his Music of the Ainur origin myth, and brushed the question under the carpet? Or was he tacitly acknowledging that they didn't really belong in his invented mythology at all, and were effectively stand-ins for modern (or modern-ish) readers?
If we take The Silmarillion as fact (within that universe), then hobbits have to be descended from men - each of the other intelligent species are accounted for either with the second or third themes in the Ainur's music (Elves and Men), as creations by a god (Dwarves and Ents), or corruptions by Melkor (Orcs and Trolls, and maybe dragons though it's never speculated AFAIK what they were corruptions of). But given that The Silmarillion etc are meant to be translations made by hobbits from the Elvish, it seems strange that the question is never raised within the text. (Is this also the case with The History of Middle Earth supplemental material?)
Tolkien was notoriously pedantic, and loved inventing explanations for apparent anomalies, as his letters showed. But apart from hobbits' origins probably lying in the Vale of Anduin, he said almost nothing about this point (or not that I know of).
This seems out of character. Could it be that he just couldn't account for them without mucking up his Music of the Ainur origin myth, and brushed the question under the carpet? Or was he tacitly acknowledging that they didn't really belong in his invented mythology at all, and were effectively stand-ins for modern (or modern-ish) readers?