Might that have been a deliberate mis-phrasing, given the context?I was just watching Jimmy Kimmel talking about the Stormy Daniels trial, when he spoke of someone "jumping on the bandit wagon"
I heard one last week that made a weird kind of sense.Might that have been a deliberate mis-phrasing, given the context?
Even if not, there are several phrases that people misspeak but which still make sense in their new form. I was thinking of one only yesterday but now, of course, it's nowhere to be found in my brain.
I've usually heard this to describe a hangover. And/or the condition of the house after a party."The morning after the night before". I've just heard this applied to today, being the morning after last night's election debate. But what was that election debate the "night before" of? NOTHING! So stop using it.
I think it might have had an actual application, but if so, it has probably been used that way less than 1% of the time.
But then what is "the night before"? Before what? The phrase suggests that the most significant thing is going to happen in the small hours.I've usually heard this to describe a hangover. And/or the condition of the house after a party.
The phrase implies that one is paying for the previous night's antics. The morning that arrived after that sh*t that went down the night before the hangover arrived.But then what is "the night before"? Before what? The phrase suggests that the most significant thing is going to happen in the small hours.
Otherwise it would just be "the morning after".
OK, I guess that does make sense. I still feel justified in complaining about its use relating to an election debate.The phrase implies that one is paying for the previous night's antics.
It's a cute idiom designed to baffle the be-jeesus out of literalists.
Surely "I couldn't care less" indicates that the current level of care is zero? (Assuming levels of care cannot be negative.) I agree that in terms of meaning, it adds nothing to "I don't care".If you really parse the meaning of "I couldn't care less" and "I could care less," both merely reflect the possibility of changing one's level of caring; neither indicates the current level of care.
Wouldn't you agree that, if one wanted the most humourous version of the above, "Well, I'll go to the foot of my sock" is a shoo-in.I'll go to the foot of our stairs, anyone?
Might that have been a deliberate mis-phrasing, given the context?
Consider the case where someone is very concerned about an issue and is not willing to reduce his or her level of concern. Surely, that person "couldn't care less;" that person is unwilling to show less concern. The statement relies on interpretation to determine why one's level of concern cannot be reduced.Surely "I couldn't care less" indicates that the current level of care is zero?
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