I was thinking about these previously recorded climate change events, and am left puzzling over them.
My original puzzle is that Orkney reportedly used to be a warmer place, and had lower sea-levels. That confuses me, because I struggle to imagine how the climate of North of Scotland could have been warmer, yet sea levels not be higher. Even more so because the crust beneath North Scotland is even still rising - effectively, rebounding after the weight of glaciers during the last ice age.
That got me thinking about the change in climate that occurred around 4,000 BC - effectively turning the Sahara from Savannah to desert. IMO that's a key climate event, which seems to suggest a shift of climate north or south - but no clear explanation of what or why on a global scale, and what that would have meant elsewhere on Earth. (Presumably this is when Neolithic Orkney was warmer and better suited for habitation.)
Recently I've been reading about how during the Bronze Age in Britain (around 2,500BC to 800BC) also shows evidence of an extremely long period of warmer and drier climate in Britain - cultivation could occur at much higher latitudes, and areas of Britain that are now moorland sometimes show clear evidence of successful Bronze Age farming (at Dartmoor and Exmoor, for example) - before the climate became colder and wetter, forcing farming down to lower latitudes.
And then I think of the original dating system at the start of the original post, and am left wondering why they focus on around 1,200BC as a key boundary, and not the others. Also, I can't shake the feeling that the 1200BC climate change was not an ordinary climate change cycle event but was triggered by a sudden cause such as vulcanism or even an impact event.
So, overall, I'm left puzzled by the extent of past climate change, whether the Egyptian and British Bronze-Age events were also part of a general cycle or due to a sudden event, and whether the dating suggested in the original post might have misunderstood the processes involved completely.
Am going to have to do some research on this. (
My original puzzle is that Orkney reportedly used to be a warmer place, and had lower sea-levels. That confuses me, because I struggle to imagine how the climate of North of Scotland could have been warmer, yet sea levels not be higher. Even more so because the crust beneath North Scotland is even still rising - effectively, rebounding after the weight of glaciers during the last ice age.
That got me thinking about the change in climate that occurred around 4,000 BC - effectively turning the Sahara from Savannah to desert. IMO that's a key climate event, which seems to suggest a shift of climate north or south - but no clear explanation of what or why on a global scale, and what that would have meant elsewhere on Earth. (Presumably this is when Neolithic Orkney was warmer and better suited for habitation.)
Recently I've been reading about how during the Bronze Age in Britain (around 2,500BC to 800BC) also shows evidence of an extremely long period of warmer and drier climate in Britain - cultivation could occur at much higher latitudes, and areas of Britain that are now moorland sometimes show clear evidence of successful Bronze Age farming (at Dartmoor and Exmoor, for example) - before the climate became colder and wetter, forcing farming down to lower latitudes.
And then I think of the original dating system at the start of the original post, and am left wondering why they focus on around 1,200BC as a key boundary, and not the others. Also, I can't shake the feeling that the 1200BC climate change was not an ordinary climate change cycle event but was triggered by a sudden cause such as vulcanism or even an impact event.
So, overall, I'm left puzzled by the extent of past climate change, whether the Egyptian and British Bronze-Age events were also part of a general cycle or due to a sudden event, and whether the dating suggested in the original post might have misunderstood the processes involved completely.
Am going to have to do some research on this. (